An individual has non-paternalistic preferences if her preferences are separable on each individuals consumption.
Theorem. If each individual $n$ has non-paternalistic preferences, then there exists for each $n$ there are functions $v_n:\R^N\to\R$ and $u_n:X_n\to\R$ such that $V_n(x)=v_n(u_1(x_1),\ldots,u_N(x_N))$.
Why are such preferences called non-paternalistic?